Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 23:58
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Are fanservice-y characters (i.e. Lara Croft, Tifa Lockhart) immediately bad?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What melts your heart every time without fail?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.